Neuro-Urology & Reconstructive Urology (Urethra, Stricture)

In neurogenic bladder after spinal cord injury, the foundational bladder-emptying strategy to protect kidneys is:

Which urodynamic parameter most strongly predicts upper tract risk in neurogenic bladders?

Urodynamic hallmark of detrusor–sphincter dyssynergia (DSD) is:

First-line procedural therapy for refractory neurogenic detrusor overactivity causing incontinence is:

Sacral neuromodulation (SNM) is best indicated for:

A patient with C6 SCI develops pounding headache, flushing, and hypertension during bladder filling. First step?

For patients performing CIC, which prevention principle has best evidence?

A continent catheterizable channel to enable CIC through the abdominal wall is commonly created with the:

Indication for augmentation cystoplasty in neurogenic bladder is:

Which statement about bladder compliance is correct?

Role of videourodynamics in neuro‑urology is to:

For persistent high storage pressures in SCI despite high-dose antimuscarinics, next step is:

In spina bifida, timing of initial urodynamics to stratify risk should be:

Preferred long‑term diversion route when a chronic indwelling catheter is unavoidable?

Detrusor areflexia/acontractile bladder management emphasizes:

For a male with SCI desiring reflex voiding and condom catheter drainage, the definitive outlet procedure is:

Intervention shown to reduce autonomic dysreflexia episodes in NDO is:

For most patients learning CIC at home, the recommended technique is:

During urodynamics, early leakage at very low detrusor pressure with relaxed sphincter suggests:

Beta‑3 agonist (mirabegron) safety note in neuro‑urology:

Best initial treatment for a short (<2 cm) bulbar urethral stricture with minimal spongiofibrosis is:

For long (>2 cm) bulbar strictures, the standard reconstructive option is:

Penile urethral strictures due to lichen sclerosus are best repaired with:

Dorsal vs ventral onlay grafts in bulbar urethroplasty—correct statement?

Ideal candidate for DVIU/dilation is a:

After one failed DVIU for a short bulbar stricture, the next best step is:

In suspected urethral injury after pelvic fracture with blood at the meatus, initial management is:

A stable PFUI patient in experienced hands may undergo which acute option?

Gold standard imaging to define anterior urethral strictures is:

Meatal stenosis after circumcision with spraying stream is best managed by:

Female urethral stricture definitive therapy with high success is:

Common long-term complication of permanent urethral stents for strictures is:

Panurethral stricture in lichen sclerosus: a typical strategy is:

Predictors of stricture recurrence after urethroplasty include:

During DVIU, the preferred incision orientation to avoid vascular injury is:

After urethroplasty, catheter removal is typically considered at:

Preferred initial imaging when a difficult catheterization suggests a false passage is:

Posterior urethroplasty for PFUI is most commonly performed via:

Long‑term success rates are highest for which anterior urethral stricture repair?

Before any urethral intervention in a man with retention due to suspected stricture, the next best step is:

The formula for bladder compliance on urodynamics is best described as:

Which antimuscarinic has lower CNS penetration and may be preferred in elderly with cognitive risk?

Contraindication to intradetrusor onabotulinumtoxinA injection is:

Long-term metabolic issue after ileal augmentation cystoplasty is most commonly:

Additional long-term risk after augmentation cystoplasty includes:

In a patient with complete suprasacral SCI and high detrusor pressures on UDS despite meds, which therapy reduces autonomic dysreflexia and storage pressures?

Preferred catheter for difficult urethral catheterization to traverse an enlarged prostate is:

Classic mechanism of posterior urethral injury is:

Classic mechanism of anterior urethral injury is:

Bladder neck contracture after radical prostatectomy is first managed with:

Radiation-induced posterior urethral stenosis typically behaves how compared with non-radiated strictures?

Indication for artificial urinary sphincter (AUS) in men is:

Preferred treatment for mild-to-moderate male SUI without radiation history is:

Risk factor for AUS cuff erosion is:

Which graft is most commonly used for substitution urethroplasty?

Advantage of dorsal onlay buccal graft in bulbar urethroplasty is:

Role of ultrasound urethrography (sonourethrogram) in stricture evaluation is:

Post-urethroplasty follow-up commonly uses which noninvasive screen for recurrence?

Early postoperative management after EPA urethroplasty should include:

Management of urethrocutaneous fistula after failed hypospadias repair typically is:

Which scenario is appropriate for staged urethroplasty?

In neurogenic patients on CIC with recurrent UTIs, the most useful first step is:

Best strategy to minimize calculus formation in augmented bladders is:

For acontractile bladder with intact outlet and desire to void per urethra, which therapy can assist emptying in select cases?

A man with recurrent short bulbar stricture after failed DVIU now 1.5 cm in length; best next step?

During endoscopic realignment of PFUI, the purpose is to:

Which finding on VCUG suggests bladder neck incompetence after pelvic trauma?

Management of recurrent bladder neck contracture after multiple endoscopic incisions may include:

Which oral harvest site complication should be discussed before buccal graft harvesting?

In a child with neurogenic bladder due to spina bifida, the cornerstone to prevent renal damage is:

Which statement about permanent urethral stents for benign strictures is true?

Before proceeding to urethral reconstruction, the most important preoperative optimization is: